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Answering The Atheist
October 10, 2004 / Volume 4, Issue 41

Can only God work great wonders (Psalm 136:4), or is Satan able to as well (2 Thessalonians 2:9)? Is there a contradiction?

If the wording in the two texts were parallel, then I suppose the questioner might have a case for a contradiction. However, the Psalmist attributes God as the only one who does "great wonders", while the lawless one of 2 Thessalonians 2 comes with "all power, signs and lying wonders". Are "great wonders" and "all...lying wonders" the same thing?

Will the questioner equate the works of Satan (temptation, evil spirits, etc.) to the works of God (creation, redemption, healings, etc.)?

There is no contradiction.

This article is a response to Skeptic's Annotated Bible