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Answering The Atheist
October 21, 2001 / Volume 1, Issue 33

THE ATHEIST'S COMPLAINT:
In two places in the New Testament the geneaology of Jesus son of Mary is mentioned. Matthew 1:6-16 and Luke 3:23-31. Each gives the ancestors of Joseph the CLAIMED husband of Mary and step father of Jesus. The first one starts from Abrhaham (verse 2) all the way down to Jesus. The second one from Jesus all the way back to Adam. The only common name to these two lists between David and Jesus is JOSEH. How can this be true? Also, how can Jesus have a genealogy when all Muslims and most Christians believe that Jesus had/has no father.

Is there a contradiction?

RESPONSE:
This 'supposed' contradiction was addressed in part on April 1, 2001 (click on the link to visit). As stated on the page cited above, the genealogies differ because one belongs to Joseph, the other to Mary.

How can Jesus have a genealogy without having a biological father? Very simply, in legal terms, Joseph was Jesus' father. Thus, the genealogy of Joseph was legally applied to Jesus.

There is no contradiction.

This article is a response to Skeptic's Annotated Bible